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Right, and that's why you threw in the innocuous reference to C&J supporting our budget deficit, when in reality that has little to do with what I was talking about, and more importantly Steingart's point about the dollar's eventual collapse.
It's not innocuous. Asia certainly financed a large part of the US budget deficit. I hope you're not confusing the deficit with the debt?
IN an era when private domestic savings is inadequate, a budget deficit must be funded from external savings. That's what the twin deficit explains. Yes, you weren't talking about the official flows, which, as I pointed out have been the most important in supporting the $ over the past 3-4 years. By not focusing on it, you miss the most important part of the story.
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You're on.
Only if you provide your definition of a "surplus" before hand....
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Yes the point to the question was the potential impact on the US$ by the trade deficit. No one was talking about the budget deficit (other than you), and even you agree that C&J would continue buying treasuries if the budget was in a surplus.
Let me simplify the Twin deficit relationship for you: assume domestic savings = domestic investment (S-I=0), then NX = (T - G)
This relationship implies that any budget deficit has to be financed by the foreign sector. When the government budget deficit went from surplus to deficit, it required an increase in foreign savings. In the worst years, 2003 and 2004, private foreign investments were insufficient to supply the gap. The CBs of Asia supplied the additional funds, buying US assets.
In 2003, the budget deficit was -$415b and foreign CBs bought $225b in treasuries.
In 2004, the budget deficit was -$428b and foreign CBs bought $305b in t-bills.
In 2005, the budget deficit was -$360b and for CBs bought $156b in t-bills.
So, yes, a decrease in the budget deficit reduces the need for foreign savings, just as an increase in deficits increases the need. The argument most experts have made about the possible collapse of the dollar is that we need to reduce the need to borrow from the foreign sector, which can be done by either increasing private savings or reducing the budget deficit. There is also the additional worry that foreign CBs will diversify their holdings and sell off $ assets. You won't believe me, so read some WSJ articles on this.
Last, the CBs of China and Japan purchase US Assets if foreign private investors aren't purchasing enough to keep their exchange rates up. The CBs pick up the slack when private funds to the US slow, as they did from 2003-2005.
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Which did not answer my specific point of the deficit not being there, had spending been kept at the constant 3% growth rate.
Got me here; I did misinterpret this one.
Based on expenditures growing by 3% using 2001 as base: insufficient revenues were responsible for 2/3 of the deficit in 2002, half of the deficit in 2003, and about 44% in 2004. And that is the point--the deficits were a consequence of an increase in spending and a cut in revenues.
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Uhhm, how is revenue growth from a sustained economic recovery caused by tax cuts in prior years, a change in theory? In my view, the theory works as advertised. Cut taxes now, take a short term hit to revenues which will lead to a quicker and sustainable economic recovery. If the theory didn't work, wouldn't we be facing a fiscal disaster 5 years after the first tax cuts went into effect, since we would be drowning in the ballooning budget deficits?
Congratulations! You are now officially Keynesian!
This is the first time you've ever mentioned "the short term hit in revenues" which creates a ______?
Keynesian theory states that if you cut personal taxes without cutting govt spending, it stimulates economic growth in the short run by increasing disposable income and consumption. The impact is increased deficits in the short run. You pursue this policy whenever the economy is in need of a stimulus. As the economy grows, and tax rates aren't changed, revenues of course increase. Assuming no change in taxes or other government policies, deficts always decline during growth (more people working and paying taxes) and increase in recessions (fewer people working and paying taxes). So, yes, we are now in complete agreement!!!
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Yeah, and in order for the capital gains taxes to be collected, the capital gains have to be realized. So if stock option compensation is roughly 5% of the total float, how does the exercise of those options lead to a large enough volume to be a "cause" of increased capital gains receipts?
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Very easy when you include the other part of what happened--a bubble in stock prices. Did investors not sell stocks during the bubble? The options are just an additional influence, especially when you consider a nice little chunk of income has now been transferred to capital gains--less income taxes paid; more capital gains paid.